I was bored at work today, so I decided to go through the words in the lexicon list and do a rough letter/syllable frequency thing. I unfortunately didn't save it to where I could get to it when I got home, but there's something interesting that I do remember: as far as I can tell, with the exception of /ʒ/ (which only appears in two words, one of which is derived from the other), none of the words we've invented so far have voiced fricatives as codas. As soon as saw this, I was reminded of a phonological rule I learned about in one of my linguistics classes. Basically, some languages have this rule that voiced consonants become voiceless at the end of a word. It might have just been voiced stops, but since we don't have stops as codas (except for one morpheme that slipped through, the suffix -
ik), that wouldn't apply. I was thinking maybe we could have a phonological rule in which voiced fricatives become voiceless at the end of a word. However, we could (and should, to make this interesting) coin words that have voiced stops underlyingly (and would be written <j> in the native orthography/romanization).
For example, to use the one root with /ʒ/ at the end:
baloj (noise, clatter) /baloʒ/ -> [baloʃ]
BUT
balojam /baloʒam/ -> [baloʒam]
(Note: I took -m to be the plurosingular, but I couldn't find what to do if I needed a vowel, so I just inserted one

).
Thoughts?